Home, Land, Property Buying and Selling - FHA Loan question

Hi

3 years ago, I bought a home via FHA Loan. I recently refinanced to a conventional mortgage. After that, I got married. My spouse has never bought a home and her name has never been added to the loan....would she still be eligible for a firth time homebuyers loan?

Thanks

Yes she would as long as she was the primary applicant on the application. You would have to be secondary or co-signer.

I found this:
S4. If husband and wife wanted to sell the home that the wife owned when they got married, and the husband had not owned a home within the past three years, could he qualify as a first-time homebuyer for the credit even though the wife would not qualify?

A. No. The purchase date determines whether a taxpayer is a first-time homebuyer. Since the wife had ownership interest in a principal residence within the prior three years, neither taxpayer may take the first-time homebuyer credit. Section 36(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code requires that the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse not have an ownership interest in a principal residence within the prior three years from the date of purchase. The husband may not take the credit even if he filed on a separate return.
First-Time Homebuyer Credit: Scenarios (http://www.irs.gov/newsroom/article/0,,id=206294,00.html)

Sorry, I was looking up the information on the credit not the loan.

If she's not on the current title, then I believe that as long as she takes title and the loan is in her name alone on the new property, then yes she would qualify as a 1st time buyer.